From the preceding lessons, we've studied the scriptures that "True Jesus" is indeed the Christ the "Son of God" (Lesson-3G).  As the "Son of God", the scriptures are also very clear that Jesus is indeed a Man in nature and state of being (Lesson 3H). As a Man the scriptures are consistently and unmistakably clear that the Lord Jesus Christ is the same, yesterday, today, and forever (Lesson-3I). Although Jesus is a Man, He is not an ordinary man but a "Very Special Man" according to the His Apostles and His disciples who knew Him very well (Lesson-3J). As a "Very Special Man" the "true Jesus" is not God, even though He possesses special attributes that distinguishes Him from ordinary man, for the true Jesus is distinct or a separate being from God the Father.

Thus the "true Jesus" is the "Son of God" but not "God the Son", the second person of the Trinity (Lesson-3B.2), for the true Jesus can never be one of the persons in the so-called Triune God. The Trinity doctrine states that God is the Triune God, existing as three persons, but one being. Members of the Trinity are said to be co-equal and co-eternal, one in essence, nature, power, action, and will (Lesson-2C.1). Those who advocate the Trinity doctrine encounter many questions in explaining their belief. Whenever faced with blatant contradiction their only defense is to say that it is a mystery (Lesson-2D.4).  The basic reason why it is allegedly so mysterious is that to equal one God, the three person have to be co-equal and co-eternal with each other and the members of the Trinity have to be one in essence, nature, power, action, and will.

Let us study the clear passages of the Bible so we may come to know the truth about the "true Jesus", why He is a Man and not God, even though He possesses special attributes that distinguishes Him from ordinary man.  This is to make people aware of the scriptural truth so they cannot be misled or tricked to believe "another Jesus" who is different from the "true Jesus" preached by the Apostles.

Jesus did the works for the Father who sent Him

3K.1   When the Apostles introduced the Lord Jesus to the men of Israel, what did they say about Him? Did they explain that Jesus is co-equal to God or is He subordinate to God?

In Acts 2:22, this is written:

"People of Israel, listen to these words: Jesus from Nazareth was a very special man. God clearly showed this to you by the miracles, wonders, and signs he did through Jesus. You all know this, because it happened right here among you. (New Century Version)

The same verse in another version of the Bible:

``Men of Israel, listen to these words: Jesus from Nazareth was a very special man. God clearly showed this to you. God proved this by the powerful and amazing things which He did through Jesus among you. You know this is true. (IEB)

The Apostles clearly declared to the people of Israel . . . . . 

• that Jesus of Nazareth was a "Very Special Man".
• And God proved that Jesus is indeed a very special Man by doing the powerful and amazing things through Jesus.

The fact that Jesus was a "Very Special Man" attested or proven genuine by God is proof enough that Jesus is not God or equal to God. This is further proven by the fact that it is God who did the powerful and amazing things through Jesus.

Did Jesus himself confirm that it was indeed God the Father, who gave Him the wonderful works to accomplish, thus testifying that He was indeed sent by the Father?

In the following verses, these are written:

But I have testimony greater than John's. The works that the Father gave me to accomplish, these works that I perform testify on my behalf that the Father has sent me.  Moreover, the Father who sent me has testified on my behalf. But you have never heard his voice nor seen his form, (John 5:36-37, NAB)

"I have glorified You on the earth. I have finished the work which You have given Me to do. (John 17:4, NKJV)

Yes, Jesus Himself confirmed that the wonderful works He did was indeed given to Him by the Father to accomplish, and these works testify that He was indeed sent by the Father.

Note, the above statement is corroborated by Jesus' own statement in John 17:3, that He was indeed sent by God and the Apostle's statement in Acts 3:13, that Jesus is a servant of God.

Why Jesus cannot be co-equal to God the Father?

In John 13:16, Jesus himself said these things:

"Most assuredly, I say to you, a servant is not greater than his master; nor is he who is sent greater than he who sent him. (NKJV)

The above verse undoubtedly prove that the Lord Jesus is not equal to God the Father because He was sent by Father and did the things given to Him. Thus, the Father who sent Jesus is unquestionably greater than Jesus.

Questions to Ponder: < Click for details

If Jesus is indeed co-equal and co-eternal, in one in essence, nature, power, action, and will as God in the Trinity (Lesson-2C.1), then. . . . . Why did the Apostles declare to the people of Israel that Jesus is a "very special Man"? Why did they not declare or clarify that Jesus is also God?  Why did Jesus Himself say that the Father gave Him the works to accomplish, making Him a servant of the Father? Are they not suppose to be co-equal and one in power and action as one Triune God? Why did Jesus Himself say that the Father sent Him, making Him lesser than the Father?  Are they not suppose to be co-equal and one in power and action as God in the Trinity?

Jesus pleaded with God and followed God's will

3K.2   What else did the Lord Jesus do that clearly show that He is indeed subordinate or not equal to God the Father?

In Hebrews 5:7, this is written:

Yet while Christ was here on earth he pleaded with God, praying with tears and agony of soul to the only one who would save him from [premature ] death. And God heard his prayers because of his strong desire to obey God at all times. (Living Bible)

In deep sorrow, the Lord Jesus Christ pleaded with God, praying with tears and agony to the only one who could save Him from death, thus Jesus by praying to God and seeking salvation clearly proved that He is indeed subordinate or not equal to God.

What did Jesus say in His prayer that further proves that He is subordinate to God?

38. Then He said to them, "My soul is exceedingly sorrowful, even to death. Stay here and watch with Me.''
39. He went a little farther and fell on His face, and prayed, saying, "O My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from Me; nevertheless, not as I will, but as You will.''
42. He went away again a second time and prayed, saying, "O My Father, if this cup cannot pass away from Me unless I drink it, Your will be done.'' (Matthew 26:38-39 &42, NKJV)

Furthermore, Jesus said to the Father in prayer, " not as I will, but as You will.'', signifying submission to God in obedience. By submitting Himself to God's will, Jesus said "Your will be done", Jesus showd that He is indeed subordinate to God the Father.  It also clearly shows distinction and independence of wills, proving further that Jesus is distinct (not the same being) from God and therefore not God himself.

Questions to Ponder: < Click for details

If Jesus as "God the Son" is indeed co-equal and one in power, action and will with "God the Father" in the Trinity (Lesson-2C.1), then . . . . . . Why did Jesus prayed and pleaded to God who could save Him from death, if they are one and the same Triune God? Why did Jesus obediently submitted to the will of God the Father? Are they not suppose to be co-equal and have one will, as one Triune God? How can "God the Son" pray to "God the Father" and still be one and the same Triune God?

Jesus a servant of God who is greater than Him

3K.3   How did the Son Jesus taught the early Christians, in clear and unmistakable words, that He is indeed subordinate or not equal to God the Father?

In John 14:28, the Lord Jesus Himself declared this as He talked to His disciples:

"You have heard Me say to you, `I am going away and coming back to you.' If you loved Me, you would rejoice because I said, `I am going to the Father,' for My Father is greater than I.  (John 14:28, NKJV)

In clear and unmistakable words, the Lord Jesus Christ Himself declared that the Father is greater than Him, thus affirming that Jesus is indeed subordinate to the Father.

Why is the Father greater than Jesus?

In John 20:17, Jesus Himself said this to Mary Magdalene just after His resurrection:

Jesus said to her, "Do not cling to Me, for I have not yet ascended to My Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, `I am ascending  to My Father and your Father, and to My God and your God.' '' (NKJV)

In declaring that the Father in heaven is His Father and His God, Jesus affirmed the truth that God, the Father in heaven is greater than Him.

In what other way did Christ affirm that the Father is greater than Him? 

In John 13:16, Christ Himself taught this to his disciples:

Truly, truly, I say to you, a servant is not greater than his master; nor is he who is sent greater than he who sent him.  (RSV)

Jesus taught this truth to His disciples, "a servant is not greater than his master".

Is Jesus really a Servant of God, thus making God His Master?

"The God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, the God of our fathers, glorified His Servant Jesus, whom you delivered up and denied in the presence of Pilate, when he was determined to let Him go. (Acts 3:13, NKJV)

Yes, the Apostles declared that "the God of our Fathers glorified His Servant Jesus" thus confirming the teaching of Jesus that He subordinate to God who is His Master.

In clear unmistakable words from the Lord Jesus himself and His Apostles it is proven beyond doubt that Jesus is indeed subordinate to God who is His master.

Questions to Ponder:

If Jesus as "God the Son" is indeed co-equal and one in power, action and will with "God the Father" in the Trinity (Lesson-2C.1), then . . . . . . Why did Jesus declare that the Father in heaven is His Father and His God? Does it mean that "God the Son" has a God in the person of "God the Father" in heaven? If that is correct, then there would be two Gods? Why did the Apostles declare that Jesus is a Servant of God, making Him lesser than God who is His Master?  Are they not supposed to be co-equal as one and the same Triune God?

 

Jesus is under God's authority who put all things under Him

3K.4   How did Apostle Paul, carefully and in an unmistakable manner, clearly explain that Jesus is indeed subordinate to God the Father?

In 1 Corinthians 15:27-28, these are written:

For the scripture says, "God put all things under his feet." It is clear , of course, that the words "all things" do not include God himself, who puts all things under Christ. 
But when all things have been placed under Christ's rule, then he himself, the Son, will place himself under God, who placed all things under him;  and God will rule completely overall. (TEV)

The same verse in other versions of the Bible:

``God will put everything under his feet.'' (When it says ``everything,'' it is clear that this does not include God, the One who put everything under Christ's authority.) 
After God does this, Christ will put himself under God's authority (the One who put everything under Christ). This is the way that God will be above all things in everything. (IEB-NT)

This is how Apostle Paul explains the authority of God over Christ.

• God will put all things or everything under Christ's feet.
  • When it says ``everything,'' it is clear that this does not include God, the One who put everything under Christ's authority.
• After God has done this,
  • Christ will put himself under God's authority (the One who put everything under Christ).
• In this way God will be above all things in everything.

Therefore, God is certainly superior to Christ Jesus and that Christ Jesus is unquestionably subordinate to God.

How else did Apostle Paul, affirm God's authority over anyone?

In Ephesians 4:6, God's authority is clarified further: 

There is one God. He is the Father of everyone. God is above everything, through everything, and in everything.  (SEB-NT)

The same verse in several versions of the  Bible:

There is one God and Father of everything. He rules everything and is everywhere and is in everything. (NCV)

Apostle Paul affirmed that there is only one God and He is the Father of everyone. God is above everyone including Christ Jesus who has declared in John 20:17 that the Father in heaven is His Father and His God.

Why is God the Father above all and that includes the Lord Jesus Christ?

In Psalms 89:6-7, these are written:

6. For who in the heavens can be compared to the Lord? Who among the sons of the mighty can be likened to the Lord?
7. God is greatly to be feared in the assembly of the saints, And to be held in reverence by all those who are around Him. (NKJV)

Truly, no one can be likened or compared to the Lord. God is greatly feared and held in reverence by all those who are around Him, and that includes the Lord Jesus Christ who now sit at HIs right hand in heaven (Heb. 10:12).

In clear unmistakable words from the Lord Jesus himself and His Apostles, it is proven beyond doubt that Jesus is indeed subordinate to God for Jesus Himself is clearly under God's authority.

Questions to Ponder:

If Jesus as "God the Son" is indeed co-equal and one in power, action and will with "God the Father" in the Trinity (Lesson-2C.1), then . . . . . . How can Jesus be equal to God when it is God who put all things or everything under Christ's authority? How can Jesus Christ be equal to God when He, Jesus himself, is under God's authority? How can Jesus Christ be equal to God, when God is the Father of everyone and that includes Jesus himself (John 20:17)?

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From the foregoing lessons based on the many verses of the Holy Bible, it is very clear that the Lord Jesus Christ is indeed subordinate or not equal to God the Father. The alleged equality of the persons in the Trinity, particularly between God the Father and God the Son is not true because it is not supported by the scriptures. It was also shown and proven that God the Father clearly superior to the Lord Jesus Christ. THEREFORE,  the belief that Jesus is God is not true and unscriptural.

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