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John 1:1
In several versions of the Bible.
In the beginning was the
Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was
God. (John 1:1, King James Version)
In the beginning was the
Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was
God. (John 1:1, New King James
Version)
The
logos existed in the very beginning, the Logos was
with God, the Logos was divine. (John 1:1, James Moffatt
Translation)
In
the beginning was the Word existed. The Word was
with God, and the Word was divine. (John 1:1, Smith-Goodspeed
Translation)
In the beginning the Word
already existed; the Word was with God, and the Word
was God. (John 1:1, Good News Translation)
In the beginning there
was the Word. The Word was with God, and the Word
was God (John 1:1, New Century Version)
In the beginning the Word
already existed. He was with God, and he was God.
(John 1:1, New Living Translation)
Suggestion: Check the verse in
other versions or translations of the Bible.
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General information about John 1:1
From the
Wikipedia article, John 1:1, these
are written:
Translation
The proper rendering from the
original Greek language used to
write the Gospel of John to English
has been a source of serious debate
in the area of Bible translation.
The most common
rendering in English is:
"In the beginning
was the Word, and the Word was
with God, and the Word was God."
This rendering is preferred among
popular English translations today.
„[It] is clear that in the
translation “the Word was God,” the
term God is being used to denote his
nature or essence, and not his
person. But in normal English usage
“God” is a proper noun, referring to
the person of the Father or
corporately to the three persons of
the Godhead. Moreover, “the Word was
God” suggests that “the Word” and
“God” are convertible terms, that
the proposition is reciprocating.
But the Word is neither the Father
nor the Trinity… The rendering
cannot stand without explanation.”[3]
However, this is not universal in
usage among scholarly translations.
Translations by James Moffatt, Hugh
J. Schonfield and Edgar Goodspeed
render it:
"...and the Word
was divine."
Difficulties
There are two issues affecting the
translating of the verse, theology and
proper application of grammatical rules. The
commonly held theology that Jesus is God
naturally leads one to believe that the
proper way to render the verse is the one
which is most popular.[9]
The opposing theology that Jesus is
subordinate to God as his Chief agent leads
to the conclusion that "... a god" or
"... divine" is the proper rendering.[10]
Some scholars staunchly oppose the
translation ...a god,[11][12][13]
while other scholars believe it is possible
or even preferable.[14][15][16]
Theology
The two
competing beliefs which cause great
controversy over this scripture center on
whether Jesus was the one and only
God, or was a god, lesser than and
completely distinct from God. The former
belief requires an understanding that God is
both infinite as well as finite (having a
“beginning”), whereas the latter belief
holds that God is infinite, and that Jesus
had a beginning.
Logos
The Greek word λόγος or logos
is a word with various meanings. It is often
translated into English as "Word" but can
also mean thought, speech, account, meaning,
reason, proportion, principle, standard, or
logic, among other things. It has varied
use in the fields of philosophy, analytical
psychology, rhetoric and religion.
Source: Wikipedia, John 1:1,
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_1:1
(as of Aug. 22, 2010, 20:25 GMT)
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Note:
Comparative Verse Study is an
ongoing work. Additional information will be posted as
gathered from time to time. However, in order to have a
balance view of the verse in question, it is highly
recommended that you search the internet for more
information or explanation on the subject.
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Explanation
why the verse John 1:1
refers to Christ's pre-existence as God.
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The following are
excerpts taken from various articles:
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From
the Book, How to know God: The Triune
God--Father, Son, Holy Spirit, these are
writen:
" . . . . our belief in the deity of Christ is the
positive declaration in the magnificent passage that
opens John's gospel:
In the beginning was the
Word, and the
Word was with God, and the
Word was
God (John 1:1)
Notice the last phrase, ". . .
and the Word was God.' Now the term Word in this
verse refers unmistakably to the Lord Jesus Christ.
In fact we read win John 1:14,
And the Word was made flesh
and dwelt
among us (and we beheld His
glory, the
glory as the begotten of
the Father), full of
grace and truth.
"The conclusion that the Word
is Jesus Christ Himself is inescapable. And verse 1
says that 'the word was God.' The Lord Jesus is
eternally existent as God always was, is, and ever
shall be." (De Haan, pp.20-21)
Source: De Haan, Richard W.
How To Know God: The Triune God--Father, Son, Holy
Spirit. Grand Rapids, Michigan: Radio Bible Class,
1980.
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From the
Wikipedia article, Logos (Christianity),
these are written:
Although the term
Logos is not retained as a title beyond the
prologue, the whole book of John presses
these basic claims. As the Logos, Jesus
Christ is God in self-revelation (Light) and
redemption (Life). He is God to the extent
that he can be present to man and knowable
to man. The Logos is God,[Jn 1:1]
and the risen Christ is worshiped by Thomas,
who fell at his feet saying, "My Lord and my
God."[20:28] Yet the Logos is in some sense
distinguishable from God, for "the Logos was
with God."[1:1]
God and the Logos are not two beings, and
yet they are also not simply identical. In
contrast to the Logos, God can be conceived
(in principle at least) also apart from his
revelatory action─although we must not
forget that the Bible speaks of God only in
his revelatory action. The paradox that the
Logos is God and yet it is in some sense
distinguishable from God is maintained in
the body of the Gospel. That God as he acts
and as he is revealed does not "exhaust" God
as he is, is reflected in sayings attributed
to Jesus: I and the Father are one"[Jn 10:30]
and also, "the Father is greater than
I."[14:28] The Logos is God active in
creation, revelation, and redemption. Jesus
Christ not only gives God's Word to us
humans; he is the Word.[1:14]
[14:6] He is the true
word─ultimate reality revealed in a Person.
The Logos is God, distinguishable and
thought yet not separable in fact.
– Frank Stagg, New
Testament Theology.[6]
Source: Wikipedia, Logos
(Christianity),
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logos_(Christianity)
(as of Aug. 22, 2010, 21:17 GMT).
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From the Wikipeida
article, Logos (Christianity), these are
written:
Christians who profess belief
in the Trinity often consider John 1:1 to be a
central text in their belief that Jesus is God, in
connection with the idea that the Father, Jesus, and
the Holy Spirit are equals. Though only in this
verse is Jesus referred to as the Word of God, the
theme transposed throughout the Gospel of John with
variations.[3]
Source: Wikipedia, Logos
(Christianity),
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logos_(Christianity)
(optional description here) (as of Aug. 22, 2010,
21:17 GMT).
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From the Wikipeidia
article, Trinity, these are written:
The Gospel of John opens by
declaring, as usually translated: "In the beginning
was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the
Word was God. He was with God in the beginning.
Through him all things were made; without him
nothing was made that has been made." The rest of
John 1 makes it clear that "the Word" refers to
Jesus Christ. Thus John introduces a seemingly
impossible contradiction, that Jesus both "was with
God" and "was God" at the same time, and that was
true from the beginning of creation. John also
portrays Jesus Christ as the creator of the
universe, such that "without him nothing was made
that has been made."[John 1:3]
Jesus as God
In the New Testament, the
Gospel of John has been seen as aimed at emphasizing
Jesus' divinity, presenting Jesus as the Logos,
pre-existent and divine, from its first words, "In
the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with
God, and the Word was God";[John 1:1]
and "The Word became flesh and made his dwelling
among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the
One and Only, who came from the Father, full of
grace and truth."[1:14][44]
Source:
Wikipedia, Trinity,
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trinity
(as of Sept. 7, 2010, 00:29 GMT).
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From the Wikipeida article,
Incarnation (Christianity), these are
written:
he Incarnation is the belief in Christianity that
the second person in the Christian Godhead, also
known as God the Son or the Logos (Word), "became
flesh" when he was miraculously conceived in the
womb of the Virgin Mary. The word Incarnate derives
from Latin (in=in or into, caro, carnis=flesh)
meaning "to make into flesh" or "to become flesh".
The incarnation is a fundamental theological
teaching of orthodox (Nicene) Christianity, based on
its understanding of the New Testament. The
incarnation represents the belief that Jesus, who is
the non-created second hypostasis of the triune God,
took on a human body and nature and became both man
and God. In the Bible its clearest teaching is in
John 1:14: "And the
Word became flesh, and dwelt among us."[1]
In the Incarnation, as
traditionally defined, the divine nature of the Son
was joined but not mixed with human nature[2]
in one divine Person,
Jesus
Christ, who was both "truly God and truly man".
Source: Wikipedia,
Incarnation (Christianity),
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Incarnation_(Christianity)
(as of Apr. 15, 2010, 16:50 GMT).
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Study
Suggestion:
So many articles have been
written about this verse John 1:1 by proponents of
Christ is God theology who confidently affirm that
the verse John 1:1 expressly supports their belief
in the pre-existence of Jesus Christ as "God".
You can readily browse the source of the above
excerpts in the
internet. And may also search the internet for
related articles using the Key
Phrase - John 1:1 explanation or
interpretations
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Explanation why the verse John 1:1
does not express the pre-existence of Jesus Christ
as God. |
Many professing Christians
believe and teach that John 1:1 refers to Christ's
pre-existence as God. They say this because the
Word, who they believe is Christ existed with God in
the beginning.
What biblical contradiction would result with the
above line of reasoning?
It would create
a great contradiction in the Bible. There would now
appear to be two gods. This can be seen in the
portion of the verse which says, "and the Word was
with God." If they insist that the "Word" means that
Christ is already existing since the very beginning
as God, then He is God with another god. The word
"with" used in the verse indicates that one is with
someone else. In this case a god with God. Two
distinct and separate entities. Based on the
understanding of those who assert the allege deity
of Christ it would appear now that the Bible is
teaching that there are two gods.
What other
great contradiction would result if they insist
that the "Word" means that Christ is already
existing since the very beginning as God, that
Christ is god with God?
Such belief would result in
another great contradiction. In fact in the same
Gospel of John, Christ said this in His prayer to
the Father in heaven.
1. Jesus spoke
these words, lifted up His eyes to heaven, and
said: "Father, the hour has come. Glorify Your
Son, that Your Son also may glorify You,
3. "And this is eternal life, that they may know
You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom
You have sent. (John 17:1,3, NKJV)
The Lord Jesus Christ Himself
said that there is only one true God―the Father in
heaven. Christ did not say that they may know us or
they may know you and me as the only true God. He
excluded Himself from the statement "the only true
God" as He pointed to the Father in heaven as the
"only true God".
Hence the understanding of
people who take John 1:1 to mean that Christ
preexisted in the beginning with God as god is
against the teachings of the Holy Scriptures. For
how can Jesus be God when He Himself pointed out
that the Father is the "only true God". For sure
Jesus is telling the truth when He said that "the
Father is the only true God, thus It follows that
their understanding of the verse John 1:1 is
incorrect.
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The Biblical Explanation
and Correct Meaning of John 1:1
If John 1:1 does
not express the pre-existence of Christ as God
already with the Father, what then does the
verse mean?
In order to find out the
biblical meaning of the verse in question, it must
first be understood that there are three parts of
the verse John 1:1,
1. In the
beginning was the Word
2. And the Word was with God
3. And the Word was God.
Let us take a closer look at this
verse part by part letting the scriptures (verses)
explain the true meaning of the whole verse John
1:1.
1st Part - "In the
beginning was the Word."
What does the 1st
part of the verse mean?
In Ephesians 3:11, this is
written:
This was according to the
eternal purpose that he accomplished in Christ
Jesus our Lord, (NAB)
The same verse in another
Bible version:
according to the plan which
he had formed from all eternity in Christ Jesus
our Lord. (NJB)
Apostle Paul explains that
there is an eternal purpose or plan which God has
accomplished in Christ Jesus our Lord.
Since when did
God conceived of this plan?
In Ephesians 3:9, Apostle Paul
explains further:
and to make all men see what
is the plan of the mystery hidden for ages in
God who created all things; (RSV)
The plan or purpose of God was
conceived and hidden for ages or formed from
eternity. In the same manner Apostle John was
teaching that in the beginning or from eternity or
ages ago, God already planed that there would be a
Christ.
When was this
beginning or from eternity or ages ago?
In I Peter 1:20, Apostle Peter made this revelation:
For He was foreknown before
the foundation of the world, but has appeared in
these last times for the sake of you (NASB)
Thus, when Apostle John wrote
"In the beginning was the Word" he was teaching that
in the beginning before the foundation of the world,
God had already foreknown or planned that there
shall be a Christ.
What is the proof
that Christ did not yet exist with God in the
beginning?
Apostle Paul also explained
that man was also chosen by God to be with Christ
before the foundation of the world. In Ephesians
1:4, this is written:
just as He chose us in Him
before the foundation of the world, that we
should be holy and without blame before Him in
love, (NKJV)
Clearly, man was also chosen by
God to be with Christ before the foundation of the
world. So if some people (who believe that Jesus is
God) would insist that Christ was already existing
with God in the beginning (before the foundation of
the world), then it would also mean that man was
also existing in the beginning. But this is not the
scriptural truth for it can be read quite clearly in
the book of Genesis that God created the world
before He created man. Thus, their assumption of the
pre-existence of Christ is wrong.
Undoubtedly, Apostle Paul was
teaching that just as God planned that there would
be Christ, man was chosen or planned to be with
Christ. Therefore, when the Bible speaks of a plan
as it does with Christ, it does not mean something
with substance or state of being.
Is the above explanation
attested to by other religious authorities?
From the New American Edition of the Douay
Confraternity Bible with comments and footnotes of
verses, this is written:
"St. John employs
the term Word. it is so used only by St John and
designates the Son as a kind of intellectual
emanation from the Father."
From a dictionary the
following word meanings are taken: Intellectual -
"devoted to matters of the mind" and Emanation- "to
come out from a source". In other words Intellectual
emanation from the Father means a thought coming
from the Father.
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Furthermore, it must
be remembered that the original language used in
writing the New Testament is Greek.
What is the
Greek word for "Word" in John 1:1 and does it mean
something with substance or already having a state
of being?
"Word (greek:
logos), Logos means word, thought, concepts, and
the expression thereof."
All these terms which
are descriptive of the word logos do not indicate
something with substance or state of being.
Intellectual emanation, thought, concept, reason,
purpose and plan are terms which refer to things
which are abstract and without substance.
Therefore,
- when Apostle
John wrote "In the beginning was the Word"
- and the Apostle
Paul wrote "the plan of the mystery hidden for
ages in God",
- and Peter wrote
"He was foreknown before the foundation of the
world,"
The Bible is not
teaching that Christ eternally existed (with state of
being) but rather God had a plan that there would be
a Christ.
2nd Part - "And
the Word was with God"
What
is the meaning of this portion of the verse?
As previously mentioned in Eph. 3:9, 11 and I Peter
1:20, God had a plan before the foundation of the
world that there would be a Christ. Since it was God
who thought of it, it follows that the word or plan
was with God, because the word or origin of the word
is God.
Did this word or plan which
originated with God remained only with Him? Did it
remain hidden with God, who solely knows of it for
all times?
In Romans 1:2-3 the Apostle Paul reveals God's will
and purpose..
which He promised beforehand through His
prophets in the holy Scriptures, concerning His
Son Jesus Christ our Lord, who was born of the
seed of David according to the flesh, (NASB)
God's word or plan
did not remain with Him hidden in mystery but was
revealed to mankind through His Prophets. He
revealed it in the form of a promise which we
can find written in the Holy Scriptures.
3rd Part - "And
the Word was God"
This part of the
verse "And the Word was God" is being used by many
preachers to teach that Christ is God. They
say, "Can't you see that Christ is the Word, and the
Word was God, therefore Christ is God." This is a
hasty conclusion and lack scriptural support.
What then is the biblical
meaning of this part of the verse "and the word was
God"?
The verse Luke 1:37, shows the uniqueness of the
word of God:
For no word from God shall be void of power.
(ASB)
When John wrote
"and the Word was God," he was not teaching that
Christ is God but rather that he was showing the
quality of God's word. This unique
characteristic of the God's word is that there is no
word of God that is void of power. Thus, God's word
possesses God's power.
How
did God declare His power when introduce Himself to
Abraham?
God Himself declares His uniqueness in Genesis 17:1.
Now when Abram was ninety-nine years old, the
LORD appeared to Abram and said to him, "I am
God Almighty; Walk before Me, and be blameless.
(NASB)
God declared that He
is Almighty or all-powerful. Hence, as God is
all-powerful, likewise His word reflects His power,
thus God's word is also all-powerful. So when
Apostle John said , "and the word was God",
He was teaching that God's word is all-powerful as
the God who had spoken the word is Almighty or
all-powerful.
Is
the above biblical explanation attested by
Theologians?
This is attested to by other theologians like those
who compiled. . .
-
The New Bible
Dictionary, in reference to John 1:1, it
stated thus: "The word possesses a like power to
God who speaks it." (P.44)
-
An Idiom Book
of New Testament Greek, by CFD Moule, this
is stated: "It is necessary without the article
(Theos not o' Theos) in as much as it describes
the nature of the Word and does not identify His
person." (p.116)
CFD Moule was
referring to the grammatical construction of the
phrase, "the word was God." in the original Greek
language. The Greek word in question is "Theos."
When "Theos" is preceded by the article "o" it
indicates that God is being used as a noun. But what
can be seen in the existing Greek manuscript of John
1:1 is that the article "o" is not present before
the word "Theos". This being the case, "theos" is
not used as a noun but as an adjective. So Apostle
John used the word "Theos" to express the quality of
the Word rather than identifying the person. In
other words, he employs the word Theos in
describing the logos that the logos possesses
the quality of god and not the logos is God in the
state of being. The English equivalent of "Theos"
without the article "o" would be the adjective
divine.
Is the above explanation
reflected in other Bible translations proving that
the above explanation is correct?
In the following Bible translations John 1:1
is stated as.
"The Logos existed in the very beginning, the
Logos was with God, the Logos was divine." (Moffatt
Translation)
"In the beginning the Word existed. The Word was
with God, and the Word was divine." (Smith-Goodspeed
Translation)
Therefore as much as
people would like to assert that Christ is God
because the Word was God, such a belief however is
without biblical foundation or lacks scriptural
support.
What about verse
14, "And the Word became flesh."
Verse 14 - "And the
Word became flesh . . . " is being used by many
preachers to teach that God became a man or god-man.
They say, "Can't you see that Christ is the Word,
and the Word was God, and the Word became flesh,
therefore God became a man in the person of Jesus
Christ." This is a hasty conclusion and lack
scriptural support
Why then is the is the meaning
of the verse "And the Word became flesh"?
In Isaiah 46:11, God declares the reason why His
word has power. .
. . . . . . . Truly I have spoken; truly I will
bring it to pass. I have planned {it, surely} I
will do it. (NASB)
The word of God has
power because God will surely do what He has
planned, or will bring it to pass what He has
spoken.
What is the proof that what
God has planned will come to pass hence His words
have power?
In John 1:14, this is written:
And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, .
. . . . . (NKJV)
God's word or plan
that there would be a Christ came to pass, His words
was fulfilled. Truly, God's word has power.
But does this mean that the
Word has power by itself?
No. The Word does not possess power by itself,
because the Word did not make itself flesh. It was
made flesh. Someone made the Word flesh.
Who made the Word flesh?
It was the One who spoke the Word, God the Father,
the Creator of all things. The biblical meaning of
"the Word was made flesh" was explained by Apostle
Paul in Galatians 4:4.
But when the fullness of the time came, God sent
forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the
Law, (NASB)
The Word was made
flesh meant that God's plan was realized when God
sent His Son born of a woman.
CONCLUSION:
It is very clear from the
above biblical explanation and reasoning (not
personal opinion) that
the verse John 1:1 . . . . . . .
- is not
teaching any pre-existing being in the person of
Jesus Christ,
- neither does
the verse teaches that Christ Jesus is God.
- Rather, when
Apostle John says. . .
- "In the
beginning was the Word," this means that
before the foundation of the world God
planned that there would be a Christ.
- "and the
Word was with God," this means that God
possess the Word because He is the original
planner or source of the Word.
- "and the
Word was God," show the quality of Word, it
means that the Word has the power like the
One who spoke it, that is almighty or
all-powerful.
- And when
John stated, "the Word was made flesh," it
means that the plan of God before the
foundation of the world to have a Christ was
fulfilled when Jesus was born of Mary.
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MOREOVER, the
verse John 1:1. . . .
- does not
teach the doctrine of the Trinity
- it does not
equate the term Word or Logos with the true God
- it does not
equate the name of Jesus Christ with the term
God.
Apostle John did
not and would not call Jesus Christ "God" in John
1:1 because he would blatantly contradict himself. .
.
- because Apostle
John himself narrated, in John 17:1,3 that
Jesus in His prayer to the Father in heaven
affirmed in no uncertain terms that the Father
is the "only true God".
- "And this
is eternal life, that they may know You,
the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom
You have sent. (John 17:3, NKJV)
- because Apostle
John also wrote in John 20:17, that Jesus
also recognizes the Father as His Father and His
God
- Jesus said
to her, "Do not cling to Me, for I have not
yet ascended to My Father; but go to My
brethren and say to them, `I am ascending
to My Father and your Father, and to My God
and your God.' '' (John 20:17, NKJV)
Apostle John did
not and would not identify or equate Jesus with the
"only true God" in John 1:1 because he would
blatantly contradict himself. . .
- because
Apostle John himself wrote that Jesus made it
clear that He is a Man who has told the truth He
heard from God.
- "But now you
seek to kill Me, a Man who has told you
the truth which I heard from God.
. . . . . .
(John 8:40, NKJV)
- because
Apostle John himself wrote that Jesus made it
clear to His disciples that the Father is
greater than Him.
- "You have
heard Me say to you, `I am going away and
coming back to you.' If you loved Me, you
would rejoice because I said, `I am
going to the Father,' for My Father is
greater than I. (John 14:28)
- "Most
assuredly, I say to you, a servant is not
greater than his master; nor is he who is
sent greater than he who sent him. (John
13:16)
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THEREFORE, we can
certainly conclude that the verse John 1:1 does not support the
doctrine or teaching about the pre-existence of Christ
and it does not prove that Christ Jesus is God.
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