John 1:1 Explanation, Interpretation, Meaning
Comparative Verse Study
 of John 1:1




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John 1:1
In several versions of the Bible.

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1, King James Version)

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.  (John 1:1, New King James Version)

The logos existed in the very beginning, the Logos was with God, the Logos was divine. (John 1:1, James Moffatt Translation)

In the beginning was the Word existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was divine. (John 1:1, Smith-Goodspeed Translation)

In the beginning the Word already existed; the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1, Good News Translation)

In the beginning there was the Word. The Word was with God, and the Word was God (John 1:1, New Century Version)

In the beginning the Word already existed. He was with God, and he was God. (John 1:1, New Living Translation)

Suggestion: Check the verse in other versions or translations of the Bible.

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General information about John 1:1

From the Wikipedia article, John 1:1, these are written:

Translation

The proper rendering from the original Greek language used to write the Gospel of John to English has been a source of serious debate in the area of Bible translation.

The most common rendering in English is:

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."

This rendering is preferred among popular English translations today.

„[It] is clear that in the translation “the Word was God,” the term God is being used to denote his nature or essence, and not his person. But in normal English usage “God” is a proper noun, referring to the person of the Father or corporately to the three persons of the Godhead. Moreover, “the Word was God” suggests that “the Word” and “God” are convertible terms, that the proposition is reciprocating. But the Word is neither the Father nor the Trinity… The rendering cannot stand without explanation.”[3]

However, this is not universal in usage among scholarly translations. Translations by James Moffatt, Hugh J. Schonfield and Edgar Goodspeed render it:

"...and the Word was divine."

Difficulties
There are two issues affecting the translating of the verse, theology and proper application of grammatical rules. The commonly held theology that Jesus is God naturally leads one to believe that the proper way to render the verse is the one which is most popular.[9] The opposing theology that Jesus is subordinate to God as his Chief agent leads to the conclusion that "... a god" or "... divine" is the proper rendering.[10] Some scholars staunchly oppose the translation ...a god,[11][12][13] while other scholars believe it is possible or even preferable.[14][15][16]

Theology
The two competing beliefs which cause great controversy over this scripture center on whether Jesus was the one and only God, or was a god, lesser than and completely distinct from God. The former belief requires an understanding that God is both infinite as well as finite (having a “beginning”), whereas the latter belief holds that God is infinite, and that Jesus had a beginning.

Logos
The Greek word λόγος or logos is a word with various meanings. It is often translated into English as "Word" but can also mean thought, speech, account, meaning, reason, proportion, principle, standard, or logic, among other things. It has varied use in the fields of philosophy, analytical psychology, rhetoric and religion.

Source: Wikipedia, John 1:1, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_1:1 (as of Aug. 22, 2010, 20:25 GMT)

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Note: Comparative Verse Study is an ongoing work. Additional information will be posted as gathered from time to time. However, in order to have a balance view of the verse in question, it is highly recommended that you search the internet for more information or explanation on the subject.
Explanation why the verse John 1:1
refers to  Christ's pre-existence as God.

The following are excerpts taken from various articles:
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From the Book, How to know God: The Triune God--Father, Son, Holy Spirit, these are writen:

" . . . . our belief in the deity of Christ is the positive declaration in the magnificent passage that opens John's gospel:

   In the beginning was the Word, and the
   Word was with God, and the Word was
   God (John 1:1)
Notice the last phrase, ". . . and the Word was God.'  Now the term Word in this verse refers unmistakably to the Lord Jesus Christ. In fact we read win John 1:14,
   And the Word was made flesh and dwelt
   among us (and we beheld His glory, the
   glory as the begotten of the Father), full of
   grace and truth.
"The conclusion that the Word is Jesus Christ Himself is inescapable. And verse 1 says that 'the word was God.'  The Lord Jesus is eternally existent as God always was, is, and ever shall be." (De Haan, pp.20-21)

Source: De Haan, Richard W. How To Know God: The Triune God--Father, Son, Holy Spirit. Grand Rapids, Michigan: Radio Bible Class, 1980.

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From the Wikipedia article, Logos (Christianity), these are written:

Although the term Logos is not retained as a title beyond the prologue, the whole book of John presses these basic claims. As the Logos, Jesus Christ is God in self-revelation (Light) and redemption (Life). He is God to the extent that he can be present to man and knowable to man. The Logos is God,
[Jn 1:1] and the risen Christ is worshiped by Thomas, who fell at his feet saying, "My Lord and my God."[20:28] Yet the Logos is in some sense distinguishable from God, for "the Logos was with God."[1:1] God and the Logos are not two beings, and yet they are also not simply identical. In contrast to the Logos, God can be conceived (in principle at least) also apart from his revelatory action─although we must not forget that the Bible speaks of God only in his revelatory action. The paradox that the Logos is God and yet it is in some sense distinguishable from God is maintained in the body of the Gospel. That God as he acts and as he is revealed does not "exhaust" God as he is, is reflected in sayings attributed to Jesus: I and the Father are one"[Jn 10:30] and also, "the Father is greater than I."[14:28] The Logos is God active in creation, revelation, and redemption. Jesus Christ not only gives God's Word to us humans; he is the Word.[1:14] [14:6] He is the true word─ultimate reality revealed in a Person. The Logos is God, distinguishable and thought yet not separable in fact.

– Frank Stagg, New Testament Theology.[6]

Source: Wikipedia, Logos (Christianity), http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logos_(Christianity) (as of Aug. 22, 2010, 21:17 GMT).

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From the Wikipeida article, Logos (Christianity), these are written:

Christians who profess belief in the Trinity often consider John 1:1 to be a central text in their belief that Jesus is God, in connection with the idea that the Father, Jesus, and the Holy Spirit are equals. Though only in this verse is Jesus referred to as the Word of God, the theme transposed throughout the Gospel of John with variations.[3]

 Source:  Wikipedia, Logos (Christianity), http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logos_(Christianity)
(optional description here) (as of Aug. 22, 2010, 21:17 GMT).
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From the Wikipeidia article, Trinity, these are written:

The Gospel of John opens by declaring, as usually translated: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made." The rest of John 1 makes it clear that "the Word" refers to Jesus Christ. Thus John introduces a seemingly impossible contradiction, that Jesus both "was with God" and "was God" at the same time, and that was true from the beginning of creation. John also portrays Jesus Christ as the creator of the universe, such that "without him nothing was made that has been made."
[John 1:3] 
 
 Jesus as God
 In the New Testament, the Gospel of John has been seen as aimed at emphasizing Jesus' divinity, presenting Jesus as the Logos, pre-existent and divine, from its first words, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God";[John 1:1] and "The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth."[1:14][44]
 
Source:  Wikipedia, Trinity, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trinity
(as of Sept. 7, 2010, 00:29 GMT).
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From the Wikipeida article, Incarnation (Christianity), these are written:

he Incarnation is the belief in Christianity that the second person in the Christian Godhead, also known as God the Son or the Logos (Word), "became flesh" when he was miraculously conceived in the womb of the Virgin Mary. The word Incarnate derives from Latin (in=in or into, caro, carnis=flesh) meaning "to make into flesh" or "to become flesh". The incarnation is a fundamental theological teaching of orthodox (Nicene) Christianity, based on its understanding of the New Testament. The incarnation represents the belief that Jesus, who is the non-created second hypostasis of the triune God, took on a human body and nature and became both man and God. In the Bible its clearest teaching is in John 1:14: "And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us."[1]

In the Incarnation, as traditionally defined, the divine nature of the Son was joined but not mixed with human nature[2] in one divine Person, Jesus Christ, who was both "truly God and truly man".
Source:  Wikipedia, Incarnation (Christianity), http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Incarnation_(Christianity) (as of Apr. 15, 2010, 16:50 GMT).
 

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Study Suggestion:

So many articles have been written about this verse John 1:1 by proponents of Christ is God theology who confidently affirm that the verse John 1:1 expressly supports their belief in the pre-existence of Jesus Christ as "God". You can readily browse the source of the above excerpts in the internet. And may also search the internet for related articles using the Key Phrase - John 1:1 explanation or interpretations
















Explanation why the verse John 1:1
does not express the pre-existence of Jesus Christ as God.
Many professing Christians believe and teach that John 1:1 refers to Christ's pre-existence as God. They say this because the Word, who they believe is Christ existed with God in the beginning.

What biblical contradiction would result with the above line of reasoning?
It would create a great contradiction in the Bible. There would now appear to be two gods. This can be seen in the portion of the verse which says, "and the Word was with God." If they insist that the "Word" means that Christ is already existing since the very beginning as God, then He is God with another god. The word "with" used in the verse indicates that one is with someone else. In this case a god with God. Two distinct and separate entities. Based on the understanding of those who assert the allege deity of Christ it would appear now that the Bible is teaching that there are two gods.

What other great contradiction would result if they insist that the "Word" means that Christ is already existing since the very beginning as God, that Christ is god with God?

Such belief would result in another great contradiction. In fact in the same Gospel of John, Christ said this in His prayer to the Father in heaven.

1. Jesus spoke these words, lifted up His eyes to heaven, and said: "Father, the hour has come. Glorify Your Son, that Your Son also may glorify You,
3. "And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent. (John 17:1,3, NKJV)

The Lord Jesus Christ Himself said that there is only one true God―the Father in heaven. Christ did not say that they may know us or they may know you and me as the only true God. He excluded Himself from the statement "the only true God" as He pointed to the Father in heaven as the "only true God".

Hence the understanding of people who take John 1:1 to mean that Christ preexisted in the beginning with God as god is against the teachings of the Holy Scriptures. For how can Jesus be God when He Himself pointed out that the Father is the "only true God". For sure Jesus is telling the truth when He said that "the Father is the only true God, thus It follows that their understanding of the verse John 1:1 is incorrect.

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The Biblical Explanation and Correct  Meaning of John 1:1

If John 1:1 does not express the pre-existence of Christ as God already with the Father, what then does the verse mean?

In order to find out the biblical meaning of the verse in question, it must first be understood that there are three parts of the verse John 1:1,

1. In the beginning was the Word
2. And the Word was with God
3. And the Word was God.

Let us take a closer look at this verse part by part letting the scriptures (verses) explain the true meaning of the whole verse John 1:1.

1st Part - "In the beginning was the Word."

What does the 1st part of the verse mean?

In Ephesians 3:11, this is written:

This was according to the eternal purpose that he accomplished in Christ Jesus our Lord, (NAB)

The same verse in another Bible version:

according to the plan which he had formed from all eternity in Christ Jesus our Lord. (NJB)

Apostle Paul explains that there is an eternal purpose or plan which God has accomplished in Christ Jesus our Lord.

Since when did God conceived of this plan?

In Ephesians 3:9, Apostle Paul explains further:

and to make all men see what is the plan of the mystery hidden for ages in God who created all things; (RSV)

The plan or purpose of God was conceived and hidden for ages or formed from eternity. In the same manner Apostle John was teaching that in the beginning or from eternity or ages ago, God already planed that there would be a Christ.

When was this beginning or from eternity or ages ago?

In I Peter 1:20, Apostle Peter made this revelation:

For He was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but has appeared in these last times for the sake of you (NASB)

Thus, when Apostle John wrote "In the beginning was the Word" he was teaching that in the beginning before the foundation of the world, God had already foreknown or planned that there shall be a Christ.

What is the proof that Christ did not yet exist with God in the beginning?

Apostle Paul also explained that man was also chosen by God to be with Christ before the foundation of the world. In Ephesians 1:4, this is written:

just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love, (NKJV)

Clearly, man was also chosen by God to be with Christ before the foundation of the world. So if some people (who believe that Jesus is God) would insist that Christ was already existing with God in the beginning (before the foundation of the world), then it would also mean that man was also existing in the beginning. But this is not the scriptural truth for it can be read quite clearly in the book of Genesis that God created the world before He created man. Thus, their assumption of the pre-existence of Christ is wrong.

Undoubtedly, Apostle Paul was teaching that just as God planned that there would be Christ, man was chosen or planned to be with Christ. Therefore, when the Bible speaks of a plan as it does with Christ, it does not mean something with substance or state of being.

Is the above explanation attested to by other religious authorities?
From the New American Edition of the Douay Confraternity Bible with comments and footnotes of verses, this is written:

"St. John employs the term Word. it is so used only by St John and designates the Son as a kind of intellectual emanation from the Father."

From a dictionary the following word meanings are taken: Intellectual - "devoted to matters of the mind" and Emanation- "to come out from a source". In other words Intellectual emanation from the Father means a thought coming from the Father.

Furthermore, it must be remembered that the original language used in writing the New Testament is Greek. What is the Greek word for "Word" in John 1:1 and does it mean something with substance or already having a state of being?

"Word (greek: logos), Logos means word, thought, concepts, and the expression thereof."

All these terms which are descriptive of the word logos do not indicate something with substance or state of being. Intellectual emanation, thought, concept, reason, purpose and plan are terms which refer to things which are abstract and without substance.  

Therefore,

  • when Apostle John wrote "In the beginning was the Word"
  • and the Apostle Paul wrote "the plan of the mystery hidden for ages in God",
  • and Peter wrote "He was foreknown before the foundation of the world,"

The Bible is not teaching that Christ eternally existed (with state of being) but rather God had a plan that there would be a Christ.
 

2nd Part - "And the Word was with God"

What is the meaning of this portion of the verse?
As previously mentioned in Eph. 3:9, 11 and I Peter 1:20, God had a plan before the foundation of the world that there would be a Christ. Since it was God who thought of it, it follows that the word or plan was with God, because the word or origin of the word is God.

Did this word or plan which originated with God remained only with Him? Did it remain hidden with God, who solely knows of it for all times? 
In Romans 1:2-3 the Apostle Paul reveals God's will and purpose..

which He promised beforehand through His prophets in the holy Scriptures, concerning His Son Jesus Christ our Lord, who was born of the seed of David according to the flesh, (NASB)

God's word or plan did not remain with Him hidden in mystery but was revealed to mankind through His Prophets. He revealed  it in the form of a promise which we can find written in the Holy Scriptures.
 

3rd Part - "And the Word was God"  

This part of the verse "And the Word was God" is being used by many preachers to teach that Christ is God.  They say, "Can't you see that Christ is the Word, and the Word was God, therefore Christ is God." This is a hasty conclusion and lack scriptural support.

What then is the biblical meaning of this part of the verse "and the word was God"?

The verse Luke 1:37, shows the uniqueness of the word of God:

For no word from God shall be void of power. (ASB)

When John wrote "and the Word was God," he was not teaching that Christ is God but rather that he was showing the quality of God's word. This unique characteristic of the God's word is that there is no word of God that is void of power. Thus, God's word possesses God's power.

How did God declare His power when introduce Himself to Abraham?
God Himself declares His uniqueness in Genesis 17:1.

Now when Abram was ninety-nine years old, the LORD appeared to Abram and said to him, "I am God Almighty; Walk before Me, and be blameless. (NASB)

God declared that He is Almighty or all-powerful. Hence, as God is all-powerful, likewise His word reflects His power, thus God's word is also all-powerful. So when Apostle John said , "and the word was God", He was teaching that God's word is all-powerful as the God who had spoken the word is Almighty or all-powerful.

Is the above biblical explanation attested by Theologians?
This is attested to by other theologians like those who compiled. . .

  • The New Bible Dictionary, in reference to John 1:1, it stated thus: "The word possesses a like power to God who speaks it." (P.44)
  • An Idiom Book of New Testament Greek, by CFD Moule, this is stated: "It is necessary without the article (Theos not o' Theos)  in as much as it describes the nature of the Word and does not identify His person." (p.116)

CFD Moule was referring to the grammatical construction of the phrase, "the word was God." in the original Greek language. The Greek word in question is "Theos." When "Theos" is preceded by the article "o" it indicates that God is being used as a noun. But what can be seen in the existing Greek manuscript of John 1:1 is that the article "o" is not present before the word "Theos". This being the case, "theos" is not used as a noun but as an adjective. So Apostle John used the word "Theos" to express the quality of the Word rather than identifying the person. In other words, he employs the word Theos in describing the logos that the logos possesses the quality of god and not the logos is God in the state of being. The English equivalent of "Theos" without the article "o" would be the adjective divine.

Is the above explanation reflected in other Bible translations proving that the above explanation is correct?
In the following Bible translations John 1:1 is stated as.

"The Logos existed in the very beginning, the Logos was with God, the Logos was divine." (Moffatt Translation)

"In the beginning the Word existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was divine." (Smith-Goodspeed Translation)

Therefore as much as people would like to assert that Christ is God because the Word was God, such a belief however is without biblical foundation or lacks scriptural support.

What about verse 14, "And the Word became flesh."

Verse 14 - "And the Word became flesh . . . " is being used by many preachers to teach that God became a man or god-man. They say, "Can't you see that Christ is the Word, and the Word was God, and the Word became flesh, therefore God became a man in the person of Jesus Christ." This is a hasty conclusion and lack scriptural support

Why then is the is the meaning of the verse "And the Word became flesh"?
In Isaiah 46:11, God declares the reason why His word has power. .

 . . . . . . . Truly I have spoken; truly I will bring it to pass. I have planned {it, surely} I will do it. (NASB)

The word of God has power because God will surely do what He has planned, or will bring it to pass what He has spoken.

What is the proof that what God has planned will come to pass hence His words have power?
In John 1:14, this is written:

And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, . . . . . . (NKJV)

God's word or plan that there would be a Christ came to pass, His words was fulfilled. Truly, God's word has power.

But does this mean that the Word has power by itself?
No. The Word does not possess power by itself, because the Word did not make itself flesh. It was made flesh. Someone made the Word flesh.

Who made the Word flesh?
It was the One who spoke the Word, God the Father, the Creator of all things. The biblical meaning of "the Word was made flesh" was explained by Apostle Paul in Galatians 4:4.

But when the fullness of the time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law, (NASB)

The Word was made flesh meant that God's plan was realized when God sent His Son born of a woman.

CONCLUSION:

It is very clear from the above biblical explanation and reasoning (not personal opinion) that the verse John 1:1 . . . . . . .

  • is not teaching any pre-existing being in the person of Jesus Christ,
  • neither does the verse teaches that Christ Jesus is God.
  • Rather, when Apostle John says. . .
    • "In the beginning was the Word," this means that before the foundation of the world God planned that there would be a Christ.
    • "and the Word was with God," this means that God possess the Word because He is the original planner or source of the Word.
    • "and the Word was God," show the quality of Word, it means that the Word has the power like the One who spoke it, that is almighty or all-powerful.
    • And when John stated, "the Word was made flesh," it means that the plan of God before the foundation of the world to have a Christ was fulfilled when Jesus was born of Mary.
MOREOVER, the verse John 1:1. . . . 
  • does not teach the doctrine of the Trinity
  • it does not equate the term Word or Logos with the true God
  • it does not equate the name of Jesus Christ with the term God.

Apostle John did not and would not call Jesus Christ "God" in John 1:1 because he would blatantly contradict himself. . .

  • because Apostle John himself narrated, in John 17:1,3 that Jesus in His prayer to the Father in heaven affirmed in no uncertain terms that the Father is the "only true God".
    •  "And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent. (John 17:3, NKJV)
       
  • because Apostle John also wrote in John 20:17, that Jesus also recognizes the Father as His Father and His God
    • Jesus said to her, "Do not cling to Me, for I have not yet ascended to My Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, `I am ascending to My Father and your Father, and to My God and your God.' '' (John 20:17, NKJV)

Apostle John did not and would not identify or equate Jesus with the "only true God" in John 1:1 because he would blatantly contradict himself. . .

  • because Apostle John himself wrote that Jesus made it clear that He is a Man who has told the truth He heard from God.
    • "But now you seek to kill Me, a Man who has told you the truth which I heard from God. . . . . . . (John 8:40, NKJV)
  • because Apostle John himself wrote that Jesus made it clear to His disciples that the Father is greater than Him.
    • "You have heard Me say to you, `I am going away and coming back to you.' If you loved Me, you would rejoice because  I said, `I am going to the Father,' for My Father is greater than I. (John 14:28)
    • "Most assuredly, I say to you, a servant is not greater than his master; nor is he who is sent greater than he who sent him. (John 13:16)
THEREFORE, we can certainly conclude that the verse John 1:1 does not support the doctrine or teaching about the pre-existence of Christ and it does not prove that Christ Jesus is God.
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September 17, 2011 10:43 AM www.comparativebiblestudylessons.com